Originally Posted by BarefootScientist
Since the failure rate of condoms even with perfect use is...what...97% and with typical use is more like 85%, I'm more inclined to think that if a couple has several acts of protected intercourse with a condom during the fertile phase and no "iffy" unprotected acts, then it is a condom failure, not a FAM method failure.
You mean, condom method failure rate is about 3% and condom user failure rate is around 15%.
I have to show you my
because I think it's eerily like yours. What do you think? I didn't get a temp today because I'm visiting my mom and forgot to get my thermometer out of my suitcase when I went to bed last night.
But, nerdy, what Mel said. It is within the rules of FAM to use w/d or a barrier to prevent pg during your fertile time. It's strict NFP that requires abstinence. It took me a long time to really get that set in my head. I kept stating NFP with abstinence for a long time before realizing that NFP=abstinence.
Also, nerdy, I wouldn't be convinced about your O. I understand why FF did what it did. It's using the ROT to discount 1 or 2 outlying temps. However, since your supposed post-O temps aren't much higher, I don't think it's clear. Even if your CL is correct, I don't think you can confirm O before cd18.