http://pagingdrgupta.blogs.cnn.com/2...e-risk/?hpt=T2
Here's my question about this...how does it increase the risk? If you get one shot or two, you're still getting the same amount of the four antigens. Is there a difference in some other ingredient? Isn't it usually the antigens that are blamed for causing the fevers, which causes the seizures?
I could understand if this concluded that the MMR and Varicella should be separated by a week or a month (or some other time period) but the conclusion is that one shot (MMR) should be given in one arm, and the other (Varicella) in the other arm.
What's the difference that way???
Here's my question about this...how does it increase the risk? If you get one shot or two, you're still getting the same amount of the four antigens. Is there a difference in some other ingredient? Isn't it usually the antigens that are blamed for causing the fevers, which causes the seizures?
I could understand if this concluded that the MMR and Varicella should be separated by a week or a month (or some other time period) but the conclusion is that one shot (MMR) should be given in one arm, and the other (Varicella) in the other arm.
What's the difference that way???








