I have been reading a lot on this, and it seems controversial. I am almost 40, and I know there is an increased risk of stillborn. But from what I have read, they don't know why. My "medwife" is now saying it's because of low amniotic fluid. So I asked what the protocol was for low fluid. IV, then if that doesn't work (how long do they give for it to work?) then possibly a c-section or being induced. I already had a c-section, so I am trying for a vbac. Another c-section and having a baby prematurely seems crazy for a 5% (what she said) risk of a stillborn. And being induced brings a high risk of uterine rupture.
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I am having trouble wrapping my head around this? Which is worse, having low fluid (which wasn't an issue with my first, I never had as many ultrasounds or even mention they were looking for it, and I was 36) But so far with my medwife I have had 4 ultrasounds with 2 more scheduled to check for fluid levels. Is this something new? By they way, all my ultrasounds have been "perfect" according to the OB who oversees them.













