Are you trying to say that the measles vaccine is ineffective at providing recipients immunity to measles? Or are you trying to say that the dramatic decrease in measles that we see today would have happened even if the vaccine had not been introduced? How do you reconcile either of those beliefs with the numerous examples of how when vaccination rates decline the incidence of circulating disease rises? Or all of the studies that show that people who are vaccinated against the measles are so much less likely to contract it?
The downward trend in that chart, the original one from PHAC is obvious. I can't believe I'm discussing this chart in so much detail, when anyone who looks at it can see it goes from 800 incidences of measles in 1935, to 420 in 1950, to 350 in 1955 and to less than 100 by 1959... what about that is so difficult to grasp?