If a child doesn't attend a gov't school, because the child is privately educated elsewhere-- what happens to the money that the gov't school would have gotten if the child attended?
Does the gov't school get it anyway? Does the federal gov't just keep it?
Does it vary by state?
I am just wondering about this. I think the idea that homeschoolers 'cost' the gov't school district money is very odd. What about people that move out of the district, or send their children to private school, or had only three children instead of five?
The whole gov't school funding issue seems so complicated, as far as where the money goes, vouchers, charter schools, etc. But it just doesn't seem right that gov't schools think that people privately educating children somehow costs the gov't money.... when the people are just living their own life and not asking the gov't for anything. The gov't isn't entitled to benefit from children just because they live near them. I'm pretty tired so I hope this is making sense... =)
So do gov't schools receive money for children that learn elsewhere?