This is a pretty theoretical question-- just curious!
As I understand it, no one really seems to know what causes pre-eclampsia, but there is a theory (something of a consensus?) that at least part of the risk is correlated to how "familiar" a woman's body is with the baby's father's DNA, so to speak... For example, risk of pre-e going down with each subsequent baby with the same father. Or this study, which apparently a lot of women don't want their DHs finding out about!
My question is, along those lines, does the length of a sexual relationship before even the very first pregnancy influence the incidence of pre-e?
Just looking for studies (I know, not likely), or even just observations by birth professionals... Anything!
I'm curious in part because I have been married for almost 14 years and am just now TTC (actually, I was pregnant and just a few weeks ago m/c at ~10 weeks, but hopefully will be pregnant again soon). Kind of hoping that gives me a leg up, as I've had, erm-- PLENTY of exposure to my husband's DNA!