Taximom, the last line of the Abstract from which you snipped the sentence you included in your post reads as follows:
Quote:
Cross-protection against non-vaccine types appears stronger with the bivalent vaccine. However, both vaccines may provide sufficient immunogenicity to confer long-term protection
The efficacy of the vaccine in preventing HPV infection has not waned over time. Period. I am certain that since you posted Barbara Romanowski's Abstract, you have carefully read the entire paper, and are aware that in fact, it is believed that the assay used to detect "waning" immunogenicity in that study was flawed. A more thorough assay shows that it did not, in fact, decrease. But this is a very complicated area, so I don't blame you for not being able to understand the difference. I would also like to add that if you were familiar with the field, you would know that the Costa Rica study to which I referred was performed with the bivalent vaccine. Again, it's complicated, I know.
Kathymuggle, I discussed the reason that the ages for HPV vaccination are recommended here:
Edited by MDC moderator to remove promotional link.
We don’t welcome people posting their wares or promoting their websites in discussion threads.
In brief:
Quote:
Vaccinations only work before an exposure. The HPV vaccination schedule currently requires a series of three injections, though recent evidence suggests that only two may be needed in the near future. Regardless, completion of the series may take a year or two for various reasons. According to a 2005 report from the National Center for Health Statistics, by the age of 15 approximately 26% of American females have had sex. By age 18, it’s 70%.
I'm afraid I don't see the point in delaying the vaccination, as it has been demonstrated to be safe.
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