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Calling all math experts  

post #1 of 4
Thread Starter 
Okay, this problem may not be "do-able." Then again, it could be incredibly simple. (I am seriously lacking in mathematical skills.)

Can anyone solve this?

Event "A" has a 1:65 chance of happening. If it does happen, then there's a 40% chance that Event "B" will also happen.

What is the chance that Event "B" will happen?
post #2 of 4
@ 0.62% chance, i think?

i converted 1:65 to a fraction of 100 (1 divided by 65 times 100=1.5384......%) and rounded up to 1.54%. then i multiplied that by 0.4 (40% converted to a decimal). i think thats how you do it. . . .
post #3 of 4
If it's 1:65, that's odds, so another way to think of it is 1 chance out of 66 that it will happen, and 65 chances out of 66 that it won't. To solve the problem based on that:

(1/66)*(40/100)=40/6600 or approx. 0.0060606... (or 0.60606% chance).
post #4 of 4
Thread Starter 
Thank you, ladies.
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