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Originally Posted by Thao
Wonder if BB is going to respond? |
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Originally Posted by DaryLLL
Nope. B/c LDSs depend on the Bible as well as the Book of Moroni. They are comfortable thinking god talked to Smith in pseudo-KJVese.
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| we tend to filter our experiences through our beliefs |
All of the ten commandments except for the commandment to keep the sabbath holy appear in the New Testament, so I follow them. So in the New Testament its really the nine commandments  ) |
| QUOTE=DaryLLL]Well, you left the apostrophe out of the word "its" and yet, I will not say I don't get a clear idea of your point. I get your insistence on Hebrew as the only possible language to read the Bible in. It seems a bit exclusionary to me. Should no non-Greek speaking Christian read her English or French Bible bc even the NRSV is hopelessly inaccurate? Is this an ideal world? How do we have any hope ofunderstanding each others' cultures if we don't strive for accurate translations of books? Hebrew scholars worked hard to translate their scriptures into English for those that don't speak Hebrew. |
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Originally Posted by Janelovesmax
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I have to say I do agree with this point. God had spread out the Jews all over the world, and many of them didn't have the privilege of learning Hebrew...anti-semitism in former Soviet Union alone would not allow to do it easily. So to say that the only way to learn Torah is in Hebrew is very exclusionary and really not beneficial, almost selfish I must say. |
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Originally Posted by BelovedBird
Tell me what are totafote?
...What does the word mean? And don't tell me the P word that also does not mean anything in english. |
| The only instance of the name "phylacteries" in Biblical times occurs in the New Testament (Matthew xxiii. 5), whence it has passed into the languages of Europe. In rabbinic literature it is not found even as a foreign word. The Septuagint renders "ṭoṭafot" (A. V. and R. V. "frontlets"; Ex. xiii. 16 and Deut. vi. 8) by ἀσαλευτόν (= "something immovable"); nor do Aquila and Symmachus use the word "phylacteries." The Targumim and the Peshita use "tefillin" or "ṭoṭafot". The terms "tefillah," "tefillin" only are found in Talmudic literature, although the word "ṭoṭafah" was still current, being used with the meaning of "frontlet" (Shab. vi. 1). The conclusions in regard to the tefillin which are based on its current name "phylacteries," therefore, lack historical basis, since this name was not used in truly Jewish circles. |
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Originally Posted by BelovedBird
Selfish? Its just a fact. A translation is a poor substitute for the real thing. I never said one cannot be a jew without knowing hebrew, or participate in the religion and almost every aspect of religious life, but full participation can be lacking if one has access only to a poor substitute in place of the real thing. Lashon hakodesh is not just a language to us. Obviously if through life circumstances somone only has a poor substitute available to them then Hashem wants them to use that. Intellectual honesty on their part (Is that really what they are limited to?) is important. We believes stronly in trying to do your best. Noone is saying there is any "punishment" for not learning in lashon hakodesh, this came up because people were talking about studying the txt as an intellectual pursuit. That should only be done in the original. Full jewish life includes study- in the original. I think torah judaism kind of views studying with translations like NFL philosophy views formula feeding. If there is no other way better formula than starvation but breastmilk is always best. Formula is an incomplete substitution. Is that attitude "selfish" or just a fact?
HTH |
I need to revive it in hopes of hearing a response to msholly's question from earlier which was not addressed. I have asked it numerous times in these discussions and have never heard a logical response. I'm eagerly anticipating a break in the silence that tends to follow this very valid point.|
Originally Posted by mshollyk
these generalizations about gender...how do you view them in light of transgender and transsexual people who undergo hormone replacement therapy? how do you think that affects people? or anyone else who has an imbalance of either estrogen or testosterone--both of which can be adjusted through hormone therapy? if you know anyone who's gone through either puberty or menopause, then you know that hormones are very powerful and influential things...and as far as i'm concerned, lead to question what makes a man a man? or a woman a woman? is it hormones? is it ovaries? breasts? testes? what happens when those have to be removed because of cancerous growth or whatever?
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