Has anybody done this? Is there any reason not to?
I had a recipe for muffins that I wished to convert to soaked flour, etc. The primary liquid in the recipe was milk, so I subbed kefir and soaked the spelt flour right in the kefir overnight. That is, straight kefir, not water with kefir added. They turned out wonderful, very bread-y as opposed to cake-y.
So, SF recommends soaking in water with a little kefir or other acid. Presumably, the pH of straight kefir is much lower. Is it too low to catalyze the reaction to neutralize the phytates?
I had a recipe for muffins that I wished to convert to soaked flour, etc. The primary liquid in the recipe was milk, so I subbed kefir and soaked the spelt flour right in the kefir overnight. That is, straight kefir, not water with kefir added. They turned out wonderful, very bread-y as opposed to cake-y.
So, SF recommends soaking in water with a little kefir or other acid. Presumably, the pH of straight kefir is much lower. Is it too low to catalyze the reaction to neutralize the phytates?






