Ok here is where I'm getting lost on the idea of Papal Infallibility. For approximately what? 1800 years the Church existed without this concept. I don't understand how Christian dogmas which had a history of being decided by ecumenical counsel for so long and then that got tossed aside for papal infallibility. I've read the passages that are used to support it in the bible but if that was the case why wasn't implemented from the beginning?
post #1 of 43
10/22/07 at 2:12am