That is unfortunately true.
Some people I know look at specific verses as guidelines, when they are unfamiliar with a translation. One is John 2:4, which reads in the KJV as "Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come."
According to scholars of ancient Greek, the most literally accurate translation would be "Dear lady (or something like that - it is the word for woman in the diminutive form, denoting affection) what is that to you and to me?"
Some versions translate it more or less like this, but some Protestant versions (maybe out of a desire to discourage undue reverence for Mary) translate it as "What have you to do with my work, woman?" or "Woman, what have I to do with thee?" or even "Woman, don't tell me what to do!" Those not only miss the intent of the words, they do not even translate the phrase accurately. We have to be a bit careful of what translation we are reading.
Sorry for the long digression.