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polio question  

post #1 of 11
Thread Starter 
My MD told me that without people getting the polio vax that is could come back and be a public health nightmare........is this true? Sears book kind of says the same....
thanks
post #2 of 11
http://mothering.com/discussions/sho...d.php?t=236531

post #6

http://www.mamashealth.com/polio.asp

"“In about 95 percent of polio cases, infection from the polio virus causes no symptoms or serious effects. In about 5 percent of cases, the polio virus manifests in a mild form (abortive polio) with flu-like symptoms, in a non-paralytic form (aseptic meningitis) or in a severe form called paralytic polio. People who have minor or non-paralytic forms recover completely. …”


Before we had the polio vaccine we saw very little viral polio. There was paralysis, but it's cause was not a polio virus but rather DDT pesticide, the chemical that in all likelihood also poisoned FDR while swimming in a lake in upstate NY. When you see where DDT was produced you will also see that it was exactly the region where the "epidemic" was.

The fact the "epidemic" never spread shows that it was not due to a virus. There are several factors that can produce polio like symptoms. If you look at this chart carefully you will see the association between the chemical and polio.

http://www.geocities.com/harpub/pol_all.htm


DDT was outlawed and at the same time the polio vaccine was introduced, making the vaccine seem as though it were the cure of the disease. That is not true. Because with the introduction of the OPV we created the most crippling viral polio ever.

The sad part of the story is that before the vaccine animals and people were affected in the same manner: both had paralytic symptoms called Polio. That’s because schools, hospitals, yards, playgrounds, farm land and stables were sprayed with the most modern and most poisonous pesticide - DDT.

After the vaccine, only children who were vaccinated one time came down with real polio. Animals no longer became paralyzed because DDT was no longer used and of course they were not vaccinated.

The statistics then were changed to count only children who were vaccinated at least twice with the new polio vaccine as “vaccinate”.

In this manner children who came down with vaccine polio could be said to be “unvaccinated”.

It’s a sad part of our medical history and worth being informed about. Here is a link that tells the whole story:

http://www.westonaprice.org/envtoxin...des_polio.html"


Also read post #7.
post #3 of 11
Please read The Cutter Incident by Paul Offit himself, a story of how the polio vaccine caused polio. It is the case that made Melvin Belli famous and laid the framework for product liability law.

Many cases of polio in the 1950s were caused by the vaccine itself. I am old enough to remember classmates with leg braces.

Regarding FDR, I always wondered why he was diagnosed with polio at the age of 39, when polio was notorious for affecting children and young adults. A 2003 medical review article stated that he may have had EpsteinBarr or GuillanBarre, but not polio.
post #4 of 11
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post #5 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by mirlee View Post
removed
why?
post #6 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by warrior mama View Post
My MD told me that without people getting the polio vax that is could come back and be a public health nightmare........
Why? Couldn't they just start vaxxing again since it's so effective?
post #7 of 11
I'm looking forward to reading thru those links
post #8 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by leila1213 View Post
why?
Because I am currently assisting with a documentary on the subject and I have very specific views that I know would not be popular here. I didn't want to start a fire. This is all I will say.
post #9 of 11
Thread Starter 
Mirlee - will you pm me with your view on this, please.
post #10 of 11
Around the year 2000, most of the developed world began an experiment with polio. We switched from OPV to IPV.
What's the difference between the two vaccines?

http://www.polioeradication.org/vaccines.asp

Quote:
Inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) needs to be injected and works by producing protective antibodies in the blood (serum immunity) - thus preventing the spread of poliovirus to the central nervous system. However, it induces only very low levels of immunity to polivirus locally, inside the gut. As a result, it provides individual protection against polio paralysis but, unlike OPV, cannot prevent the spread of wild polio virus.
So, it's not a "herd immunity" vaccine. (OPV is a herd immunity vaccine, as is the MMR...but not IPV.)

IPV has also never really even been tested for effectiveness.

(read this to learn about the history of IPV, and why we switched from IPV to OPV in the 60's...start at the bottom right)

http://s45.photobucket.com/albums/f7...olio/?start=20
post #11 of 11
Quote:
Originally Posted by warrior mama View Post
Mirlee - will you pm me with your view on this, please.
Me too, please! I saw your original post but I couldn't quite get a handle on it before you deleted. Thanks!
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