Circing just the tip of the foreskin - Page 3 - Mothering Forums

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#61 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 12:05 AM
 
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What would happen if a circ.d male grew up and didn't want to be Jewish? Let's say he wanted to be a full-fledged Bhuddist?

He couldn't be, because he'd have to be intact.

Maybe I need to start a different thread on that one:LOL
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#62 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 02:25 AM
 
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Minor nitpicking point, DaryLLL ... while Noakh's story is very interesting and worthwhile to learn, and while he I guess technically is Avraham's ancestor, he is *not* considered a patriarch or even, well, Jewish.

Avraham is very specifically considered to be "the first Jew/Ivri."

Then again, Noakh would be technically Moshe/Moses' ancestor, too. So maybe there's a genetic/hereditary component to the condition ... :LOL







And candiland, considering how many born-Jews are now Buddhists, I don't think a circumcision is a hinderance.

Example: Ram Dass' given name is way more American-Jewish-suburbia-evoking than mine.

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#63 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 08:02 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally posted by eilonwy
I think that the point was that they (their souls) were already closer to God when they were born, so they didn't need the covenant to symbolize that relationship.. I have no idea where you're going with the feet, though...
This makes sense to me. More sense than amy's explanation, which is the literal answer (and not serious either ) which I was not interested in.

Feet can be a euphemism for genitals in Bible. Well, at least in Tanakh.

Avraham would not have been a "Jew," as Judah had not been born yet? What does "Ivri" actually mean?
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#64 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 08:05 AM
 
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Ivri = Hebrew (A person, not the language).

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#65 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 08:09 AM
 
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Thank you, e.

I would have called them Hebrews too, but wondered earleir, when Hebrew is actually said to have first been spoken. Did Noah speak it? What is the traditional belief on when the Ivri began speaking it?
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#66 of 69 Old 04-22-2004, 11:31 PM
 
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Oh, lordy, Amy, don't even get me started on Ram Dass:





:LOL
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#67 of 69 Old 04-30-2004, 12:25 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by eilonwy
Ivri = Hebrew (A person, not the language).
Loosely translated, "One who lives near the river," which is where the Hebrews lived.

Traditionally, Moses is assumed to have had a condition known as hypospadia and was not circumcised.

Jewish baby boys born with this condition are not circumcised today.
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#68 of 69 Old 04-30-2004, 04:00 AM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by miriam
Loosely translated, "One who lives near the river," which is where the Hebrews lived.
Actually is means "over" and it is said to be to be those that came to the land of Cana'an from "over the river" jordan.

Quote:
Originally Posted by miriam
Jewish baby boys born with this condition are not circumcised today.
They get a "hatafas dam bris" where they draw a drop of blood.
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#69 of 69 Old 05-02-2004, 09:27 PM
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by miriam
Traditionally, Moses is assumed to have had a condition known as hypospadia and was not circumcised.

Jewish baby boys born with this condition are not circumcised today.
Why? Not all boys born without foreskins have hypospadias...

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