I know the official celiac line is "Spelt = wheat". But, there is such a body of anecdote attesting to people tolerating spelt, as well as barley and rye. Celiac.com stands behind that party line, but all their evidence is weak. With regard to spelt, it's based on the fact that the gluten protein is 98.5% similar to gliadin in wheat. That's a fairly logical leap... but there've been no in vitro studies to prove it.
For years, oats were thought to cause a reaction in celiacs also. The gluten in oats, avenin, did indeed cause a reaction in a petri dish. In more recent years, though, it's been found that avenin does not cause a reaction in most celiacs. It's thought that this is because avenin is more completely broken down in the stomach before the proteins reach the small intestine. Here's the kicker, though. While they don't seem to cause a reaction in most celiacs, they do cause a reaction in some. So, it would seem that some celiacs are more sensitive than others.
Another factor I'm considering is that there is a lot of anecdotal reports of people who react to the gluten in every grain, including corn, rice and millet. Despite the fact that the official celiac party line is that those grains are totally safe, some people find they have a very clear reaction to them.
So, I'm comfortable in believing that while the average celiac is in fact sensitive to the "normal" set of grains (wheat, rye, barley, plus their close relatives), some are far more sensitive. Why, then, is it difficult to believe that some celiacs might be less sensitive? That their bodies might not react to barley, rye or spelt at all? Hordein (the gluten in barley) and secalin (rye) are not gliadin. It's obvious that some people respond to gliadin and hordein and secalin. But, why can't someone respond *only* to gliadin?
Since a few people react to all glutens, and a bunch react to the usual suspects plus avenin, and a whole lot react just to the usual ones, is it that much of a stretch to believe that some might react only to gliadin? And, is the 98.5% similarity between wheat gliadin and spelt gliadin really enough to call them functionally identical?
I'm also contemplating the range of symptoms that people who are sensitive to gluten suffer. While the typical gut issues of celiac disease are very common, many people (myself included) never seem to suffer those symptoms. That wide range also seems to indicate that this issue is not as cut and dried as the official party line would lead us to believe.
It seems to me that the celiac/gluten sensitive community being not well served by oversimplifying this issue. By saying that "all celiacs adhere to this set of boundaries" and ignoring the possibility of variation, those who are more sensitive are being underserved and physically damaged; those who are less sensitive are unneccisarily restricting themselves. Given the emotional and psychological difficulty of such restrictions, loosening them where appropriate would be a great boon to them.
For years, oats were thought to cause a reaction in celiacs also. The gluten in oats, avenin, did indeed cause a reaction in a petri dish. In more recent years, though, it's been found that avenin does not cause a reaction in most celiacs. It's thought that this is because avenin is more completely broken down in the stomach before the proteins reach the small intestine. Here's the kicker, though. While they don't seem to cause a reaction in most celiacs, they do cause a reaction in some. So, it would seem that some celiacs are more sensitive than others.
Another factor I'm considering is that there is a lot of anecdotal reports of people who react to the gluten in every grain, including corn, rice and millet. Despite the fact that the official celiac party line is that those grains are totally safe, some people find they have a very clear reaction to them.
So, I'm comfortable in believing that while the average celiac is in fact sensitive to the "normal" set of grains (wheat, rye, barley, plus their close relatives), some are far more sensitive. Why, then, is it difficult to believe that some celiacs might be less sensitive? That their bodies might not react to barley, rye or spelt at all? Hordein (the gluten in barley) and secalin (rye) are not gliadin. It's obvious that some people respond to gliadin and hordein and secalin. But, why can't someone respond *only* to gliadin?
Since a few people react to all glutens, and a bunch react to the usual suspects plus avenin, and a whole lot react just to the usual ones, is it that much of a stretch to believe that some might react only to gliadin? And, is the 98.5% similarity between wheat gliadin and spelt gliadin really enough to call them functionally identical?
I'm also contemplating the range of symptoms that people who are sensitive to gluten suffer. While the typical gut issues of celiac disease are very common, many people (myself included) never seem to suffer those symptoms. That wide range also seems to indicate that this issue is not as cut and dried as the official party line would lead us to believe.
It seems to me that the celiac/gluten sensitive community being not well served by oversimplifying this issue. By saying that "all celiacs adhere to this set of boundaries" and ignoring the possibility of variation, those who are more sensitive are being underserved and physically damaged; those who are less sensitive are unneccisarily restricting themselves. Given the emotional and psychological difficulty of such restrictions, loosening them where appropriate would be a great boon to them.