Long story:
My husband had an episode this past winter that is best described as a brief, reactive psychosis. He is 31 and has no history of anything remotely like this. In his follow-up treatment, 2 doctors have labeled him as bipolar (each one favoring a different kind). His parents and I don't buy it, though he has been treated for depression for many years. Let me go through the whole list of reasons why.
1) he has no history of manic behavior at all
2) the behavior he exhibited wasn't manic. The only "mania" like symptom was lack of sleep. He was waking up around 3 AM, in sheer terror, unable to go back to sleep he was so scared by his delusions. At the very end (2 days before he went into the hospital), he was so worked up at night he had a hard time going to sleep, but the whole time he was so tired he wanted to sleep.
3) there was no euphoria, excessive spending, hypersexuality etc, and never has been in the past
4) he was stabilized initially using Ativan only
5) He would get better when he would sleep, going down hill over the course of the day
6) the many drugs he has been on since to treat bipolar have not helped him, but brought about other problems
7) In the ER, the Psych hospital and my friend who is getting his PhD in Psychology all said he was too old to be manifesting bipolar in this way for the first time.
8) his illnes is clearly based in anxiety, and work-related stress. Proof of which is the fact that after being stabilized, he returned to work for 1 day and was psychotic again, even on the meds.
My husband is now in a state of what I think is drug-induced depression, and getting out of it has been the biggest challenge since he stabilized. I think the culprit is the very drug the doctor is using for mood stabilization, but I know from our many visits that he is 1) not open to any other conclusion than that my husband is bipolar, and 2) convinced that going off this drug will cause another episode.
Here's the problem: getting my husband good care has been so hard. His current doctor is available by phone, takes our calls, works with us. He's just not open to the one thing I need him to listen to and consider. I've been self-paying for all of this care (well, not the hosptial), including the psychiatrist who wouldn't return my calls when his meds returned my husband to psychosis
Where can I find more information? I also read in another thread about budeprion issues, and that is the drug my husband was on when he had his episode, and I'm wondering if that, tied in with his stress could be at the heart of it. Where can I find some answers? Where can I get information? Can anyone help me. I think it would be so terrible to let this go on forever. His parents and I know him better than anyone, and his father as a degree in counseling, we are well informed on this topic. But his doctor is too arrogant to listen to me on this.
My husband had an episode this past winter that is best described as a brief, reactive psychosis. He is 31 and has no history of anything remotely like this. In his follow-up treatment, 2 doctors have labeled him as bipolar (each one favoring a different kind). His parents and I don't buy it, though he has been treated for depression for many years. Let me go through the whole list of reasons why.
1) he has no history of manic behavior at all
2) the behavior he exhibited wasn't manic. The only "mania" like symptom was lack of sleep. He was waking up around 3 AM, in sheer terror, unable to go back to sleep he was so scared by his delusions. At the very end (2 days before he went into the hospital), he was so worked up at night he had a hard time going to sleep, but the whole time he was so tired he wanted to sleep.
3) there was no euphoria, excessive spending, hypersexuality etc, and never has been in the past
4) he was stabilized initially using Ativan only
5) He would get better when he would sleep, going down hill over the course of the day
6) the many drugs he has been on since to treat bipolar have not helped him, but brought about other problems
7) In the ER, the Psych hospital and my friend who is getting his PhD in Psychology all said he was too old to be manifesting bipolar in this way for the first time.
8) his illnes is clearly based in anxiety, and work-related stress. Proof of which is the fact that after being stabilized, he returned to work for 1 day and was psychotic again, even on the meds.
My husband is now in a state of what I think is drug-induced depression, and getting out of it has been the biggest challenge since he stabilized. I think the culprit is the very drug the doctor is using for mood stabilization, but I know from our many visits that he is 1) not open to any other conclusion than that my husband is bipolar, and 2) convinced that going off this drug will cause another episode.
Here's the problem: getting my husband good care has been so hard. His current doctor is available by phone, takes our calls, works with us. He's just not open to the one thing I need him to listen to and consider. I've been self-paying for all of this care (well, not the hosptial), including the psychiatrist who wouldn't return my calls when his meds returned my husband to psychosis
Where can I find more information? I also read in another thread about budeprion issues, and that is the drug my husband was on when he had his episode, and I'm wondering if that, tied in with his stress could be at the heart of it. Where can I find some answers? Where can I get information? Can anyone help me. I think it would be so terrible to let this go on forever. His parents and I know him better than anyone, and his father as a degree in counseling, we are well informed on this topic. But his doctor is too arrogant to listen to me on this.